A llittle more :) PATHO_CNS(HY) Q: Define epilepsy. A: Epilepsy is a disorder of recurrent seizures.

Q: Define syrinx.
A: Tube, as in syringe

Q: Describe a myoclonic seizure.
A: Quick,repetitive jerks

Q: Describe a tonic-clonic seizure.
A: Alternating stiffening and movement (grand mal)

Q: Describe a tonic seizure.
A: Stiffening

Q: Describe an absence seizure.
A: A blank stare (petit mal- it',s in 1st aid this way!)

Q: Describe an atonic seizure.
A: drop', seizures

Q: Describe Broca',s aphasia.
A: Broca',s is nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension.
A: BROca',s is BROken speech.

Q: Describe Horner',s syndrome.
A: Sympathectomy of face (lesion above T1). Interruption of the 3-neuron oculosympathetic pathway.

Q: Describe Wernicke',s aphasia.
A: Wernicke',s is fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension.
A: Wernicke',s is Wordy but makes no sense.

Q: How do patients present with a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
A: Worst headache of my life',

Q: How do pts present with MS?
A: -Optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision)
A: - MLF syndrome (internuclear ophthalmoplegia)
A: -Hemiparesis
A: -Hemisensory symptoms
A: -Bladder/bowel incontinence

Q: How does it spread?
A: Through the bloodstream to the CNS

Q: How does Werdnig-Hoffman disease present?
A: At birth as a ',floppy baby',

Q: How is Huntington',s disease inherited?
A: Autosomal dominant

Q: How is the polio virus transmitted?
A: Fecal-oral route

Q: How is the prevalence of MS geographically distributed?
A: Higher prevalence with greater distance from the Equator

Q: In what persons is subdural hemorrhage often seen?
A: Elderly individuals, alcoholics, and blunt trauma

Q: T/F. Partial seizures can not generalize.
A: False- Partial seizures can generalize.

Q: What are 2 common organisms that target the brain in AIDS pts?
A:

1. Toxo!Toxo!Toxo!
A:

2. Cryptococcus

Q: What are 2 degenerative diseases of the cerebral cortex?
A:

1. Alzheimer',s
A:

2. Pick',s disease

Q: What are 2 degenerative diseases that affect the basal ganglia and brain stem?
A:

1. Huntington',s disease
A:

2. Parkinson',s disease

Q: What are 3 degenerative disorders of the motor neuron?
A:

1. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
A:

2. Werdnig-Hoffman disease
A:

3. Polio

Q: What are associated with Guillain-Barre?
A:

1. Infections (herpesvirus or Choice C . jejuni)
A:

2. Inoculations
A:

3. Stress

Q: What are neurofibrillary tangles?
A: Abnormally phosphorylated tau protein

Q: What are some demyelinating and dysmyelinating diseases?
A:

1. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
A:

2. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
A:

3. Postinfectious encephalomyelitis
A:

4. Metachromatic Leukodystrophy
A:

5. Guillain-Barre syndrome

Q: What are the 4 types of intracranial hemorrhages?
A:

1. Epidural hematoma
A:

2. Subdural Hematoma
A:

3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A:

4. Parenchymal hematoma

Q: What are the 5 types of generalized seizures?
A:

1. Absence
A:

2. Myoclonic
A:

3. Tonic-clonic
A:

4. Tonic
A:

5. Atonic

Q: What are the clinical symptoms of Huntington',s disease?
A: Dementia, chorea

Q: What are the clinical symptoms of Parkinson',s disease?
A: TRAP= Tremor (at rest)
A: cogwheel Rigidity
A: Akinesia
A: Postural instability
A: (you are TRAPPed in your body)

Q: What are the clinical symptoms of Tabes dorsalis?
A: -Charcot joints
A: -Shooting pain
A: -Argyll-Robertson Pupils
A: -Absence of deep tendon reflexes

Q: What are the common causes of seizures in adults?
A: -Tumors
A: -Trauma
A: -Stroke
A: -Infection

Q: What are the common causes of seizures in children?
A: -Genetic
A: -Infection
A: -Trauma
A: -Congenital
A: -Metabolic

Q: What are the common causes of seizures in the elderly?
A: -Stroke
A: -Tumor
A: -Trauma
A: -Metabolic
A: -Infection

Q: What are the lab findings in Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A: Elevated CSF protein with normal cell count (',albumino-cytologic dissociation',)

Q: What are the lab findings in poliomyelitis?
A: -CSF with lymphocytic pleocytosis with slight elevation of protein
A: -Virus recovered from stool or throat

Q: What are the pathological signs of glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)?
A: -Necrosis
A: -Hemorrhage
A: -Pseudo-palisading

Q: What are the signs of LMN lesions seen in poliomyelitis?
A: -Muscle weakness and atrophy
A: -Fasciculations
A: -Fibrillation
A: -Hyporeflexia

Q: What are the symptoms of Horner',s?
A:

1. Ptosis
A:

2. Miosis
A:

3. Anhidrosis and flushing of affected side of face

Q: What are the symptoms of poliomyelitis?
A: -Malaise
A: -Headache
A: -Fever
A: -Nausea
A: -Abdominal pain
A: -sore throat

Q: What area of the brain is affected by generalized seizures?
A: Diffuse area

Q: What artery is compromised in an epidural hematoma?
A: Middle meningeal artery

Q: What blood vessels are affected in subdural hemorrhages?
A: Rupture of bridging veins

Q: What causes a parenchymal hematoma?
A: -HTN
A: -Amyloid angiopathy
A: -Diabetes Mellitus
A: -Tumor

Q: What causes poliomyelitis?
A: Poliovirus

Q: What chemical can Parkinson',s disease be linked to?
A: MPTP, a contaminant in illicit street drugs

Q: What clinical symptoms are present with syringomyelia?
A: Bilateral pain and temperature loss in the upper extremities with preservation of touch sensation

Q: What clinical symptoms are present?
A: -Symmetric ascending muscle weakness beginning in the distal lower extremities
A: -Facial diplegia in 50% of cases
A: -Autonomic fx may be severely affected

Q: What congenital malformation is often associated with syringomyelia?
A: Arnold Chiari Malformation

Q: What damage does cryptococcus cause in the brain?
A: Periventricular calcifications

Q: What damage does toxoplasma cause in the brain?
A: Diffuse (intracerebral) calcifications

Q: What diseases are berry aneurysms associated with?
A: -Adult polycystic kidney disease
A: -Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
A: -Marfan',s syndrome

Q: What do partial seizures affect?
A: One area of the brain

Q: What does rupture of a berry aneurysm lead to?
A: Stroke

Q: What does the spinal tap show in a subarachnoid hemorrhage?
A: Bloody or xanthochromic

Q: What event is the rupture of the middle meningeal artery secondary to?
A: Temporal bone fracture

Q: What genes is the familial form of Alzheimer',s associated with?
A: Genes are chromosomes 1, 14, 19 and 21

Q: What is a complex partial seizure?
A: Impaired awareness

Q: What is a degenerative disorder of the Spinocerebellar tract?
A: Friedrich',s ataxia (olivopontocerebellar atrophy)

Q: What is anhidrosis?
A: Absence of sweating

Q: What is another name for Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A: Acute idiopathic polyneuritis

Q: What is another symptom of Werdnig-Hoffman disease?
A: Tongue fasciculations

Q: What is another term for Broca',s aphasia?
A: Expressive aphasia

Q: What is another term for Wernicke',s aphasia?
A: Receptive aphasia

Q: What is miosis?
A: Pupil constriction

Q: What is PML associated with?
A: JC virus

Q: What is ptosis?
A: Slight drooping of the eyelids

Q: What is the classic triad of MS?
A: SIN
A:

1. Scanning speech
A:

2. Intention Tremor
A:

3. Nystagmus

Q: What is the common name for ALS?
A: Lou Gehrig',s disease

Q: What is the course of a subdural hemorrhage?
A: Venous bleeding (less pressure) with delayed onset of symptoms

Q: What is the course of MS?
A: In most pts, the course is remitting and relapsing

Q: What is the incidence of brain tumors in adults?
A: Metastases> Astrocytoma (including glioblastoma)> Meningioma

Q: What is the incidence of brain tumors in children?
A: Astrocytoma> Medulloblastoma> Ependymoma

Q: What is the most common cause of dementia in the elderly?
A: Alzheimer',s disease

Q: What is the most common complication of a berry aneurysm?
A: Rupture of the aneurysm

Q: What is the most common site for a berry aneurysm?
A: The bifurcation of the anterior communicating artery

Q: What is the pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome?
A: Inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves and motor fibers of ventral roots (sensory effect less severe than motor)

Q: What is the pathogenesis of Tabes dorsalis?
A: Degeneration of the dorsal columns and dorsal roots due to tertiary syphilis.

Q: What is the pathology of Alzheimer',s?
A: Associated with senile plaques (beta-amyloid core) and neurofibrillary tangles

Q: What is the pathology of Huntington',s disease?
A: Atrophy of the caudate nucleus

Q: What is the pathology of MS?
A: -Periventricular plaques
A: -Preservation of axons
A: -Loss of oligodendrocytes
A: -Reactive astrocytic gliosis
A: -Increased protein (IgA) in CSF

Q: What is the pathology of Parkinson',s disease?
A: Associated with Lewy bodies and depigmentation of the substantia nigra

Q: What is the pathology of Pick',s disease?
A: Associated with Pick bodies, intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies

Q: What is the pathology of poliomyelitis?
A: Destruction of anterior horn cells, leading to LMN destruction

Q: What is the pathology of syringomyelia?
A: Softening and cavitation around the central canal of the spinal cord.

Q: What is the prognosis for a pts diagnosed with a GBM?
A: Very poor

Q: What is the second most common cause of dementia in the elderly?
A: Multi-infarct dementia

Q: What is the shape of GBMs?
A: Butterfly', glioma

Q: What is the usual cause of a subarachnoid hemorrhage?

Q: What neural deficits are present in Tabes dorsalis?
A: Impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia

Q: What neural tracts are damaged?
A: Crossing fibers of the spinothalamic tract

Q: What neurons are affected in ALS?
A: Both the upper and lower motor neurons

Q: What neurons are affected in Polio?
A: Lower motor neurons only

Q: What seizures are categorized as simple partial?
A: Awareness intact
A: -Motor
A: -Sensory
A: -Autonomic
A: -Psychic

Q: What tumor is Horner',s syndrome associated with?
A: Pancoast',s tumor

Q: Where are most brain tumors located in adults?
A: 70% are supratentorial (cerebral hemispheres)

Q: Where are most childhood brain tumors located?
A: 70% below tentorium (cerebellum)

Q: Where do berry aneurysms occur?
A: At the bifurcations in the Circle of Willis

Q: Where does it initially replicate?
A: The oropharynx and small intestine

Q: Where does the 3 neuron oculosympathetic pathway project from?
A: The hypothalamus

Q: Where does the 3 neuron oculosympathetic pathway project to?
A:

1. Interomediolateral column of the spinal cord
A:

2. Superior cervical (sympathetic) ganglion
A:

3. To the pupil, smooth muscles of the eyelids and the sweat glands

Q: Where is Broca',s area located?
A: Inferior frontal gyrus

Q: Where is Pick',s disease specific for?
A: The frontal and temporal lobes

Q: Where is the aopE-4 allele located?
A: Chromosome 19

Q: Where is the most common site of syringomyelia?
A: C8-T1

Q: Where is the p-App gene located?
A: 21

Q: Where is Wernicke',s area located?
A: Superior Temporal Gyrus

Q: Which demyelinating disease is seen in 2-4% of AIDS patients?
A: PML

A little more :))) MICRO AND IMMUNO HY 1 Tb test is which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type IV (delayed)
2 describe type II hypersensitivity Ab coats a target so that cells with Fc receptors (PMNs, monos, etc.)
3 ADCC falls into what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
4 this type of hypersensitivity is due to circulting Ab-Ag complexes Type II
5 what is ELEK? test for toxin production for Choice C . diptheriae
6 two ways to diagnose Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis India ink and latex agglutination test for Ag
7 this bug grows near Choice S . aureus on blood agar Choice H . influenzae
8 use of Thayer-Martin agar grows Neisseria from locations that have normal flora ( for example .

genital tract)
9 diagnosis of meningococcal meningitis growth of Choice N . meningitis from CSF on chocolate agar
10 owl',s eye inclusions in the urine CMV infection
11 Choice C . neoformans: urease (+) or (-)? urease positive
12 acute mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug? breast feeding, Choice S . aureus
13 chronic mastitis is associated with what life change? What bug? perimenopause, no bugs (it is sterile, due to inspissated mucus)
14 pernicious anemia is associated with what HLA type? DR5
15 Chaga',s disease is associated with … megacolon, megaesophagus, and dilated cardiomyopathy
16 a positive tuberculin skin test means that … a cell-mediated immune response has occurred (no Ab required!)
17 what does Choice P . aeruginosa exotoxin A do? ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) EF-2, a GTP binding protein involved in protein synthesis
18 what does pertussis toxin do? ADP-ribosylates (inhibits) GTP-binding protein that inhibits adenylate cyclase, resulting in ?cAMP (turns the "off" off)
19 what does cholera toxin do? ADP-ribosylates (activates) GTP-binding protein that stimulates adenylate cyclase, resulting in ?cAMP (turns the "on" on)
20 etiologic agent that may be involved in membranous GN Hep B
21 multiple episodes of Neisseria meningitis suggests what immunologic defect? C6, C7, C8
22 cell-surface markers for B cells CD19, CD20, and CD21
23 cell-surface markers for T cells CD3 (along with CD4 or CD8)
24 cell-surface markers for NK cells CD56
25 two GU bugs that induce endocytosis Neisseria and Chlamydia
26 most likely bug to cause an epidemic of pediatric diarrhea Choice Y . enterocolitica
27 ss + RNA virus that causes diarrhea and may have serious neurologic sequellae polio
28 what is the form of malaria that enters the body through the mosquito bite? sporozoite
29 schizontes live where? liver cells
30 1/3 of those with malaria will have what very severe sequellae? acute renal failure
31 describe blackwater fever hemolysis leading to black urine and renal damage (due to malaria)
32 rheumatoid arthritis is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
33 asthma and urticaria are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type I
34 SLE and vasculitides are examples of what type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
35 most common parasitic infxn in the US cysticercosis
36 condyloma is caused by what virus? HPV
37 most common bug in acute bacterial prostatitis Choice E . Coli
38 how does cholera do its dirty work? activates adenylate cyclase
39 paternity testing is based on … genetic allotypes
40 definition of isotypes IgE, IgM, IgD, etc.
41 the crystalline core of eosinophils is composed of … major basic protein
42 catalase +, gram + cocci that grows well on mannitol salt agar Choice S . aureus
43 what type of vaccination do we give for measles? live virus (kids > 15 mo of age)
44 cells that express BOTH CD4 and CD8 are ____ _____ immature T cells
45 painful ulceration on the penis is most likely caused by … Choice H . ducreyi (chancroid)
46 microscopic findings in chancroid pleomorphic rods in "school of fish" pattern
47 polyarteritis nodosa is associated with what viral infection? Hep B
48 how does a superantigen work its magic? binds TCR variable region to MHC Class II to induce massive T cell activation
49 the name of the specific anti-treponemal test FTA-ABS
50 what agar is used to grow Legionella? buffered charcoal yeast extract
51 name some reportable infectious diseases MMR, AIDS, gonorrhea, Salmonella, Shigella, syphilis, TB, chickenpox, Hep A and B
52 triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome purpura, eczema, recurrent bacterial infxn
53 patients with Wiscott-Aldrich are at increased risk for what cancer? NHL
54 spirochete with "Shephard',s Crook" appearance Leptospira
55 gram stain and shape of Brucella gram (-) cocci
56 what type of sensitivity: wheal and flare reactions? Type I
57 what type of sensitivity: berylliosis? Type IV (delayed)
58 what type of sensitivity: Graves', disease? Type II
59 patient with chronic cough + tiny yeast in lungs Histo
60 stain used for fungi silver stain
61 another name for the acid-fast stain Ziehl-Neeson stain
62 catalase (-), coagulase (-), optochin sensitive gram (+) cocci w/ greenish discoloration on blood agar Choice S . pneumo
63 sequence of events in the maturation of a B cell heavy chain gene rearrangement > cytoplasmic mu chains > light chain gene rearrangement > IgM on surface > Igg & IgM on surface
64 contaminated swimming pools often transmit what virus? adenovirus
65 major cause of diarrhea in kids under age 2 rotavirus
66 NADPH oxidase produces … superoxide anions
67 myeloperoxidase produces … H2O2 >> HOCl
68 caused of upper lobe pneumonia with cavitation Choice K . pneumo
69 type of pneumonia associated with artificial ventilation Choice P . aeruginosa
70 mechanism of action of cycloheximide inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis
71 primary opsonin in the C', system C3b
72 the electron transport system of bacteria is located in the … bacterial plasma membrane
73 bacterial endocarditis in IV drug users is usually due to … Choice S . aureus
74 RBC-sized lung organisms that stain spherical or ovoid-shaped with silver stains PCP
75 chronic antral gastritis is associated with … Choice H . pylori
76 in dxing a UTI, you find that the nitrate dipstick is negative.

What',s the bug? Enterococcus (gut streptococci)
77 nitrate dipstick is positive for what bugs? all the gram (-) enterics - Choice E . Coli, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas
78 hepatitis type which is very dangerous in pregnant women Hep E
79 before mast cells can degraunulate due to allergen exposure and cause a type I hypersensitivity reaction, what must occur? sensitization - processing of Ag by APCs, production of IL4 by Th2 cells causing B cells to switch from IgM to IgE, IgE binds to surface of mast cells
80 what is the bug that carries and perpetuates Lyme disease? Ixodes tick
81 most prevalent form of mycobacterium disease in AIDS patients TB
82 levels of IgM in common variable immunodeficiency all Ig low (lack of plasma cells)
83 the numbers of B cells in common variable immunodeficiency are … normal
84 the numbers of B cells in Bruton',s agammaglobulinemia are … low
85 the most common presentation for G6PD hemolysis in Africa is … a child who has just eaten beans
86 in the body, where can Histo be found? intracellularly (not passed between people)
87 stain used for PCP silver stain
88 four bugs that take advantage of people with chronic granulomatous dz Choice S . Aureus, Choice S . Aspergillus, Nocardia, Salmonella (all are phagocytosed and not killed)
89 lack of C5 causes a susceptibility to what bug? Neisseria
90 defective chemotactic response predisposes to what type of infection? bacterial
91 the first three factors involved in the classical C', pathway C1, C4, C2
92 acute epidydimitis with orchitis is most often caused by … Choice N . gonorrhoeae
93 at-risk individuals for PCP include AIDS patients and … premature infants
94 Chlamydia must live intracellularly because … it cannot make its own ATP
95 Choice S . aureus is a common pathogen of what part of the body? nasopharynx
96 When B cells undergo isotype switching, they require these two things IL-4, and interaction with T cells (CD40 on the B cell interacts with CD40L on the T cell
97 state the levels of Igg in hyper-IgM syndrome IgM high, eveything else low
98 defect in hyper-IgM syndrome CD40L on T cells causes B cells to fail to undergo isotype switching
99 a defect in IL-2 secretion puts patients at risk for what type of bugs? intracellular
100 the RNA virus "exception" that replicates in the nucleus orthomyxo (influenza)
101 the DNA virus "exception" that replicates in the cytoplasm pox
102 the triad of cutaneous hemorrhage, periventricular calcifications, and deafness suggests which of the TORCHES? CMV infection
103 most common cause of chronic meningitis TB
104 deficiency of what C', tends to produce an SLE-like syndrome? C4
105 The Ig profile for common variable immunodeficiency and X-linked agammaglobulinemia low IgM, Igg, IgA
106 through where does Choice N . fowleri enter the brain? through the cribriform plate
107 during which phase of bacterial growth do spores form? stationary phase
108 triad of Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome eczema, thrombocytopenia, and repeated infections
109 transmission of Wiscott-Aldrich X-linked
110 a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class I turns into a … CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
11 a T lymphocyte with low affinity for MHC Class II turns into a … CD4+ Th lymphocyte
112 gram (-) septic shock is mediated by what part of the gram (-) membrane? Lipid A
113 the vaginas of prepubertal girls and postmenopausal women is colonized by … bugs of the skin (e.g.

Staph)
114 the vaginas of women of child-bearing age are colonized by … lactobacillus, candida, and Strep
115 gastric cancer has been linked to what bug? Choice H . pylori
116 population of cells responsible for DTH reaction CD4+ T cells
117 where does HSV2 hang out during the asx times of the disease? sacral ganglia
118 patients with Lyme arthritis commonly have what HLA association? HLA-DR4
119 the bugs that undergo natural transformation Haemophilus, Neisseria, Step, Helicobacter
120 virus associated with polyarteritis nodosa Hep B
121 what type of hypersensitivity is poison ivy exposure? DTH (Type IV)
122 name some type II hypersensitivity reactions SLE, glomerulonephritis
123 how to differentate common variable immunodeficiency from X-linked agammaglobulinemia in CVI, the B cell count is normal
124 at what age does common variable immunodeficiency often present? 2nd-3rd decades
125 when does ADA deficiency commonly present? early in life
126 the infectious form of Crypto encapsulated budding yeasts (it is a monomorphic fungus)
127 transmission form of Histo septate hyphae with micro- and macroconidia
128 type of streptococcus which can cause rash on palms and soles Choice S . moniliformis ("rat-bite fever")
129 Ig used in the response against encapsulated bacteria Igg (especially subclass 2)
130 loss of MHC Class I expression would make cells invincible to killying by what type of T lymphocyte? CD8+ Tc lymphocyte
131 what is beta-2-microglobulin? a signalling molecule of MHC I
132 transmembrane protein of HIV Gp41
133 surface protein of HIV which may bind Ab Gp120
134 outer membranes exist in gram (-/+) bacteria -
135 toxin which ADP-ribosylates the Gs protein to permanently turn it on cholera toxin
136 toxin which ADP-riboxylates the Gi protein to permanently turn it off pertussis toxin
137 Blasto infection is acquired by … inhalation of spores
138 live virus vaccines MMR, sabin polio, yellow fever
139 killed virus vaccines salk polio, rabies, rotavirus, flu, HepA/B
140 what blood component works in concert with Ab to clear encapsulated bacteria? C',
141 ADCC is used against what type of cell? host cell (not bacteria!)
142 what is a reagin? an immunogen that stimulates an IgE response
143 the immunogen in quinine-mediated hemolysis RBC+quinine (not just quinine because it cannot elicit a response by itself, which is the definition of an immunogen)
144 where do superAg bind? invariant region of beta chain of TCR and MHC Class II molecules of APCs
145 psoas abscess ("cold abscess") is associated with what bug? TB (tuberculous osteomyelitis)
146 what mechanism allows a B cell to express both IgD and IgM? alternative mRNA splicing
147 toxic metabolite that causes problems in SCID deoxyadenosine
148 which type of virus, in its infective form, can be diretly translated? ss (+) RNA
149 how is Lyme diagnosed in the lab? look for Igg or IgM Ab
150 acid-fast bugs that cause diarrhea in the immunocompromised Cryptosporidium and Isospora
151 what does a "western blot for HIV" actually look for? Ab to HIV Ag
152 B7 on an APC interacts with ___ on a T cell CD28
153 a genetic deficiency in ___ confers immunity to macrophage-tropic HIV CCR5, a chemokine receptor required for the entry of HIV into CD4 T cells
154 ringworm of the hair and scalp transmitted by cats and dogs Microsporum canis
155 most common cause of keratoconjunctivitis adenovirus
156 type of cell that produces IL-2 and IFN-g Th1 cells
157 type of cell that produces IL-1 and TNF-g macrophage
158 type of cell that secretes IL-4, IL-5 and IL-10 Th2 cells
159 most common route of transmission of Choice C . jejuni poultry
160 a defect in NADPH oxidase causes … chronic granulomatous disease
161 turns off the Gi protein via ADP-ribosylation Choice B . pertussis
162 do Th2 cells recognize carrier or hapten in a vaccine? carrier
163 Graft-vs-host disease is mediated by … CD8 Tc from the graft attacking the host
164 pathogenicity of Giardia is mediated by … ventral sucking disc
165 germ tube formation is used to identify … Choice C . albicans
166 the RPR test is used for … detection of Choice T . pallidum antibody
167 how do we visualize Choice T . pallidum? immunoflourescence staining (has replaced darkfield microscopy)
168 three important genera of acid-fast organisms Nocardia, Mycobacteria, Cryptosporidium
169 organisms that are not acid-fast stain ___ with acid-fast stain blue
170 the HIV pol gene codes for …. RT and integrase
171 how does the Choice P . aeruginosa exotoxin work? like diptheria toxin - ADP-ribosylates EF-2
172 bullous pemphigoid is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
173 RA is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
174 ABO incompatibility is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
175 Myasthenia gravis is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
176 serum sickness is a Type ___ hypersensitivity reaction II
177 erythema chronicum migrans usually affects what part of the body? groin, axilla, thigh
178 the toxin of Choice P . aeruginosa is most similar to what other toxin? Diphtheria
179 what is the mechanism of diphtheria and pseudomonas toxins? ADP-ribosylate EF-2
180 what differentiates pseudomonas and diphtheria toxins? pseudomonas works in the liver, and diphtheria works on nerves and heart
181 patient living in the southwest who develops ARDS and dies hantavirus
182 animal that spreads hantavirus deer mouse
183 describe a patient with SSPE ataxic, optic atrophy, oligoclonal bands on tap, cerebral atrophy, early death
184 two most important chemotactic factors for neutrophils IL-8 and C5a
185 why are patients continually susceptible to reinfection with Choice N . gonorrheae? changes in its antigenic coat
186 to determine the strain of Choice S . aureus, what lab test should be done? bacteriophage sensitivity
187 a rash on hands and feet indicates … tertiary syphilis, RMSF, or Coxsackie
188 stain used to diagnose PCP silver stain
189 a patient with Choice Y . enterocolitica that secondarily develops arthritis has which type of hypersensitivity reaction? Type II
190 to what type of disease is a patient with Bruton',s susceptible to? bacterial
191 cause of pinkeye Choice S . pneumo
192 common cause of neonatal meningitis, present in mom',s flora Listeria
193 make the dx: small intracellular yeast growing at RT as a mold, has hyphae with micro and macro-conidia histo
194 AIDS patient with multiple visual field deficits and decreased visual acuity - bug? CMV infection
195 underlying mechanism responsible for hypersensitivity to penicillin Ab against drug bound to RBC surface
196 abrupt loss of resistance to an abx in a bacteria is due to … loss of a plasmid
197 the swelling of a bee sting is due to … local vasodilation
198 immunization induces the proliferation of which type of T cell? Th cell
199 Choice S . pyogenes is differentiated from the other types of beta-hemolytic strep by its sensitivity to … bacitracin
200 CMV is most often seen in the … immunocompromised
201 blood components involved in the Arthus reaction preformed Ab and C',
202 when does an Arthus rxn occur? reimmunization (e.g.

tetanus booster)
203 coating of latex beads with __ and __ can be used to ID gram (+) cocci Igg and fibrinogen
204 where in the US is coccidio found in the soil? southwestern US
205 protective measles antibody is to what epitope on the measles virus surface? hemagglutinin
206 what type of organism tends to affect women with self-induced abortions? anaerobes (e.g.

Clostridia)
207 normal Ab production but recurrent bacterial infections suggests a problem with what WBC? neutrophils