A 40--old female complains of numbness and decreased sensation of her l

USMLE Step 1 Forum

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 19:26:21 -0500

hot_rod2k

A 40-year-old female complains of numbness and decreased sensation of her left arm and leg.

She does not appear to be distressed at these findings and tells the physician that three weeks ago her 74-year-old father experienced similar symptoms and was found to have had a major stroke.

Workup reveals no abnormalities.

What is the most likely explanation for her symptoms?

Choice A . Conversion disorder
Choice B . Factitious disorder
Choice C . Hypochondriasis
Choice D . Malingering
Choice E . Somatization disorder

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 20:46:59 -0500

Moon

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 21:04:38 -0500

spacestar

A or Choice E . Um I',ll take Choice A .

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 21:05:10 -0500

alive962

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 21:39:09 -0500

HueyN

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 21:49:44 -0500

boogeywoogy

Mon, 08 Feb 2010 21:53:42 -0500

stefan

Internal Medicine sure its C!

Tue, 09 Feb 2010 00:02:30 -0500

reenzz

Tue, 09 Feb 2010 00:23:35 -0500

wilsond

I think it',s Choice B . Factitious.

Tue, 09 Feb 2010 00:36:36 -0500

Bishop_711

It is Conversion dis..Conversion disorder is a condition where patients present with neurological symptoms such as numbness, paralysis, or fits, but where no neurological explanation is found and it is judged that the problems are due to an individual',s psychological response to stress ! In her case stress is her father',s ds..!

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